Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 18.06.2025 00:34
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why is there no great temptress figure in any of Tolkien’s major works?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
What techniques can be used to sing like Freddie Mercury if one is unable to hit high notes?
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Corey Conners withdraws from U.S. Open after injury striking camera cable - Awful Announcing
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.