Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 03:23
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What are the pros and cons of a prospective bride/groom not having any siblings?
You'll usually find your answer there.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Former church in Northern Kentucky now a heavenly home for sale - WWMT
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.